# Locally Linear L’Hôpital

I’ll begin with a lemma. (I like to do a lemma now and then if for no other reason than having an excuse to explain what a lemma is – a simple theorem that is used in proving the main theorem.)

Lemma: If two lines intersect on the x-axis, then for any x the ratio of their y-coordinates is equal to the ratio of their slopes.

Proof: Two lines with slopes of m1 and m2 that intersect at (a, 0) on the x-axis have equations y1 = m1(xa) and y2 = m2(xa). Then

$\displaystyle \frac{{{y}_{1}}}{{{y}_{2}}}=\frac{{{m}_{1}}\left( x-a \right)}{{{m}_{2}}\left( x-a \right)}=\frac{{{m}_{1}}}{{{m}_{2}}}$

L’Hôpital’s Rule (Theorem): If f and g are differentiable near x = a and f(a) = g(a) = 0, then

$\displaystyle \underset{x\to a}{\mathop{\lim }}\,\frac{f\left( x \right)}{g\left( x \right)}=\underset{x\to a}{\mathop{\lim }}\,\frac{{f}'\left( x \right)}{{g}'\left( x \right)}$

if the limit exists.

The fact that f(a) = g(a) = 0 means that the two functions intersect on the x-axis at (a, 0). For example, the functions f(x) = tan(x) and g(x) = sin(x) have this property at $\left( \pi ,0 \right)$.

Figure 1. y = tan(x) in red and y = sin(x) in blue

Now zoom-in several times centered at $\left( \pi ,0 \right)$.

Figure 2. The previous graph zoomed in.

Whoa!

That looks like lines!!

It’s the local linearity property of differentiable functions – if you zoom-in enough any differentiable function eventually looks linear. So maybe near $\left( \pi ,0 \right)$ the lemma applies. The only difference is that the slopes of the “lines” are the derivatives so

$\displaystyle \underset{x\to a}{\mathop{\lim }}\,\frac{f\left( x \right)}{g\left( x \right)}=\underset{x\to a}{\mathop{\lim }}\,\frac{{f}'\left( x \right)}{{g}'\left( x \right)}$

Now that does not quite prove L’Hôpital’s Rule, but it should give you and your students a good idea of why L’Hôpital’s Rule is true.

Then in our example:

$\displaystyle \underset{x\to \pi }{\mathop{\lim }}\,\frac{\tan \left( x \right)}{\sin \left( x \right)}=\underset{x\to \pi }{\mathop{\lim }}\,\frac{\frac{1}{{{\left( \cos \left( x \right) \right)}^{2}}}}{\cos \left( x \right)}=\underset{x\to \pi }{\mathop{\lim }}\,\frac{1}{{{\left( \cos \left( x \right) \right)}^{3}}}=\frac{1}{{{\left( \cos \left( \pi \right) \right)}^{3}}}=-1$

But isn’t that obvious from Figure 2?